I have absolutely no idea how to find out where Heckel might have developed this argument further, so if anyone has any suggestions, please let me know. The article he refers to is that of P.O. Spann, Alexander at the Beas: A Fox in Lion's Skin. In F. B. Titchene and R. F. Moorton, Jr., eds, The Eye Expanded: Life and the Arts in Greco-Roman Antiquity (1999). Berkely and Los Angeles: 62-74.Similarly, there were no serious mutinies by the army: the secessio at the Hyphasis was, in all likelihood, contrived, to put the onus for turning back on the men rather than on Alexander himself*; the Opus mutiny was a reaction to Alexander's orientalism.
*As suggested by Spann 1999, an argument which I develop elsewhere.
To get to the nitty-gritty of Heckel's comment; I could see it being possible that Alexander himself might have wanted to turn back at this point. Yes, there are those who believe he would have continued further, ever onwards, but how far could he have gone before he said, Enough? China? He had received reports of what lay ahead and must surely have realized that the encircling ocean was not to be found within any short distance. Perhaps his intelligence reports made him aware that he was not going to find it at all? Alternatively, maybe the information caused him to believe that further conquest would be too problematical and that there was the possibility of a defeat somewhere ahead?
Behind him, Bactria remained unsettled, and if he went further he would have the Indians to his back without any major Macedonian military presence to keep them in line. The thought that his rear could be cut off must have entered his mind, don't you think? And it is one thing to keep moving forward, but the knowledge that the rest of his empire also needed to be ruled after its conquest could not be suppressed forever.
So, supposing Alexander did want to turn back but was not willing to admit this to the world, how could he have contrived the mutiny at the Hyphasis? This is where I have difficulty with the theory. I believe that there must have been discontent amongst the army, but the theory seems to assume that they would not have professed their feelings directly to Alexander. So are we to understand that Alexander sent agents amongst them covertly to stir things up, and that Coenus was also an agent of Alexander? It sounds a bit far-fetched to me. I don't know the details of Heckel and Spann's argument (I only just ordered a used copy of The Eye Expanded) but I cannot think of another scenario offhand. Nor can I understand why Alexander would have made an impressive speech about continuing westwards if he really didn't want to go there. Anyone have thoughts on this?
Just one more comment: if we were to accept this proposition as true, it would put an end to all the hostile suggestions regarding the death of Coenus, and no one could continue to claim that the march through the Gedrosian desert was to punish Alexander's men for their previous so-called mutiny!
Best regards,