the_accursed wrote:amyntoros wrote:But doesn't the above describe many governments throughout history rather than just reflecting a possible Athenian's point of view?
Yes.
amyntoros wrote:I mean, I'm sure that some Victorian and Edwardian women (and earlier) had the same feelings, as did indentured servants and slaves in the US, along with the indigenous peoples. (Native Americans didn't get the right to vote in state elections in Utah until the 1950's!) I realize that this discussion is hinged on the word "full" as used by Paralus to describe the Athenian democracy, but the kind of democracy that you are describing is one with universal suffrage which didn't exist in the western world until the 20th century.
Right. And in my opinion, only since then has it been reasonable to use words such as "full" and "complete" to describe these democracies...".
“Full” and “complete”, when used by myself, are clearly described in both instances:
Paralus wrote:
Actually, for its time, the Athenian democracy was a full democracy.There is no point in viewing ancient societies through modern mores. Athens was the first documented full democracy in history. And it was a "universal suffrage" within its time. Women, metics and slaves were non citizens. Of the citizen body the whole could participate - no property restrictions impinging on that right. Hence the classic "sailor rabble" description.
Paralus wrote: Athens was, as I said, a complete democracy. Men - the only citizens in Greece in ancient times - were not ever, under the democratic constitution, disenfranchised in Athens (for whatever reason) unless they were from another state (metics) or slaves.
Arguments based upon what
a metic or
a woman thought are completely anachronistic and totally irrelevant. One might as well argue that the gladiatorial games of Rome were the organised murder of innocents to satisfy the blood lust of a degenerate citizenry. In fact they were the contact sport of a time where modern human rights values did not exist.
Such arguments have about as much bearing as what ancients might have thought of slaves and their position. There was no “abolitionist” movement in ancient times. The ancient world was, in fact, a slave economy. The slave revolts of the ancient world are a subject unto themselves but are quite illuminating. They are characterised by redistribution of land (an old chestnut) and the seeking of some alternate, Hesiod inspired agrarian utopia where the former slaves would have the land produce its abundance for them. How? Slaves naturally.
One of the few to realise this was Drimarkos who led the “slave revolt” of Chios in the early third century. Militarily he succeeded and established a treaty with the Chians which facilitated his “moderate robbing” of the local storehouses. Aristonicus of Pergamum, in 132, is oft represented as another in the “abolitionist” mode. That he promised a similar programme to Cleomenes and Nabis of Sparta (land redistrinution et al) and was attempting to take the kingdom of Pergamum, willed to Rome by Attalus III, seems to have escaped notice. The two large rebellions in Sicily (and Spartacus himself) all exhibit the same rationale: an agrarian utopia not possible without slaves.
It is how people saw matters
at the time. Ditto the great American democray of the founding fathers: women did not count then. Indeed the more genteel of those founding fathers decided that an electoral college of the landed gentry should elect the president
directly, not the unwashed.
To put it in plain terms:
Definition of a complete or full democracy: that all (adult) citizens are enfranchised to participate in government and its workings (in ancient Athenian terms from the assembly through to the “law courts”).
Definition for citizenship in ancient Athens: that one was a free born male of Athenian parents.
Those allowed full participation under the ancient Athenian constitution:
all citizens without qualification or restriction based on class or wealth.